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I stand partially corrected. https://www.citizensadvice.org.uk/consumer/protection-for-the-consumer/consumer-contracts/consumer-contracts-must-the-contract-be-
by JupiterMoon 11y ago
I stand partially corrected.
https://www.citizensadvice.org.uk/consumer/protection-for-the-consumer/consumer-contracts/consumer-contracts-must-the-contract-be-in-writing/ https://www.citizensadvice.org.uk/consumer/protection-for-th...
So you are right in many cases. But not all. The other example I was thinking of is regarding a house purchase. In England an offer to buy a house is not binding until contracts have been exchanged and a deposit paid and even then the deposit (usually 10%) is what your bound to. In Scotland however merely saying that you will buy someone else's house can supposedly bind you to the purchase.
IANAL
- SEMW 11y ago> The other example I was thinking of is regarding a house purchase. Contracts for the sale of land are an explicit statutory exception to the general rule: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1989/34/section/2 http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1989/34/section/2