I don't know. It's easy to over-interpret what somebody intended to say. Which brings me to your own "M2 is derived from M0". There are certainly interpretatio

I don't know. It's easy to over-interpret what somebody intended to say. Which brings me to your own "M2 is derived from M0". There are certainly interpretations of that statement with which I would agree, but there are also interpretations which are seriously dubious. For example, the interpretation that "there is a causal mechanism from the quantity of M0 to the quantity of M2" is highly doubtful. The economists who actually study those things seem to come down mostly on the side of endogenous money, which says that the causality is the other way around: "changes in M2 drive changes in M0" - or rather, they did before interest rates went to the zero lower bound, at which point the two quantities became decoupled.