Wouldn't that be really regressive? A poor person's spending on goods is going to be a larger proportion of their income than a rich person's. Admittedly, rich

Wouldn't that be really regressive? A poor person's spending on goods is going to be a larger proportion of their income than a rich person's. Admittedly, rich people could buy fancier goods which could be taxed more, but would that make up the difference?