3 ms·
No, those questions are equivalent. In the single experiment case, the answer to both is 1/2, and in the infinite case, it's 1/3. There's no "3" to even enter
by daxfohl 11y ago
No, those questions are equivalent. In the single experiment case, the answer to both is 1/2, and in the infinite case, it's 1/3. There's no "3" to even enter into the equation in the single experiment case.
- rjaco31 11y agoUh? The outcome probability is the same if you do it once or if you do it infinitely, it's an independent event.