Here is another analytical tack to consider: If Art III already empowered the judiciary to adjudicate petitions for the redress of grievances (since these are

Here is another analytical tack to consider: If Art III already empowered the judiciary to adjudicate petitions for the redress of grievances (since these are just "cases") why was it necessary to include this right again in the First Amendment? And why not make any clear link to the legal concepts or terminology already written in Art III?