I think this is exactly backwards for the poster's inquiry. Yes, the company's offer has implied a valuation (and the company even says it's based on actual in

I think this is exactly backwards for the poster's inquiry. Yes, the company's offer has implied a valuation (and the company even says it's based on actual investor-dollars-in). But the poster already knows that, and isn't completely confident the offer reflects the real valuation offered investors. So there's no more calculation to be done from the offer alone. They instead want to know if they could/should require more formal documentation of the company's claims.