The article makes it rather explicit that the test has changed to be more in line with modern curricula, at one point saying that private schools prepare studen

The article makes it rather explicit that the test has changed to be more in line with modern curricula, at one point saying that private schools prepare students for the tests of 40 years ago. If you admit up front that the test is geared toward one or the other, doesn't that invalidate scores on that test as an objective measure of comparing the two?