Where this question becomes practical is with the Origination clause of the US constitution. It states that any bill for raising revenue must originate in the H

Where this question becomes practical is with the Origination clause of the US constitution. It states that any bill for raising revenue must originate in the House of Representatives. If the House passes a bill that deals with some topic, and then the Senate amends it by removing all of its' language and replacing that language with something else, did that bill still originate in the House? See: Sissel v. United States Department of Health & Human Services