4 ms·
Why? Surely their commitment was public, if the person in question was married. If the state sanctions a contract, in this case marriage, and one party does som
by littletimmy 11y ago
Why? Surely their commitment was public, if the person in question was married. If the state sanctions a contract, in this case marriage, and one party does something to offend that contract, then why not make it public?
- the_af 11y agoInfidelity can be just as serious, morally speaking, if the person in question is not married but in a long-term monogamous relationship. Is this simply a question about the law? I thought people were arguing about moral outrage. In any case, not every breach of contract must be made public for all to see and humiliate you.